A woman whose anorexia nervosa has caused her to be amenorrhoeic for a decade requests treatment to induce ovulation so she can get pregnant. How should she be helped?
I have a 28-year-old patient who has been amenorrhoeic for approximately 10 years as the result of anorexia nervosa. At present, she is very thin and is not involved in any ongoing psychotherapy. She wants to have clomiphene to induce ovulation so she can get pregnant. Is this reasonable when the patient is not prepared to try to improve the primary reason for her infertility? Is it likely to work?